What factors create a foreign exchange gain on a foreign currency transaction?

Question 1  A company makes an export sale denominated in a foreign currency and allows the customer one month to pay. Under the two-transaction perspective accrual approach, how does the company account for fluctuations in the exchange rate for the foreign currency? Additionally, what factors create a foreign exchange gain on a foreign currency transaction? What factors create a foreign exchange loss? Question 1 options: Question 2  What are the differences in accounting for a forward contract used as a cash flow hedge of (a) a foreign-currency-denominated asset or liability and (b) a forecasted foreign currency transaction? Question 2 options: Question 3  What are the differences in accounting for a forward contract used as (a) a cash flow hedge and (b) a fair value hedge of a foreign-currency-denominated asset or liability?

Discuss voluntary self-incrimination.

Question 1 (20 points) Discuss voluntary self-incrimination. Do people invoke their rights the majority of the time when they are questioned by police? To determine whether incriminating statements were made voluntarily, the U.S. Supreme Court adopted another of its totality-of-circumstances test. What two things are required to prove that the totality-of-circumstances for an involuntarily confession? Question 1 options: Save Question 2 (20 points) State the reasons for the bright-line rule regarding warnings to suspects adopted in Miranda v. Arizona. Identify two circumstances that have to be present before officers are required to give the Miranda warnings. List three types of questioning when officers do not have to give the Miranda warnings. Question 2 options: Save Question 3 (20 points) Identify and discuss the three justifications for the exclusionary rule that the U.S. Supreme Court has ruled on and released a decision. Question 3 options: Save Question 4 (20 points) Give examples of who can consent to a search for someone else. Explain the difference between actual and apparent authority to consent for another person. Question 4 options:   Question 5 (20 points) Summarize the facts and explain the significance of the Supreme Court’s holding in Hudson v. Palmer on pages 236 and 237. Question 5 options:

Compare and contrast failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and management oversight and risk tree (MORT).

Question 1 1. Compare and contrast failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and management oversight and risk tree (MORT). Which technique do you believe would be most effective for hazard analysis in a facility that primarily performs welding operations?   Question 2.columbiasouthern.edu/webapps/assessment/take/launch.jsp?course_assessment_id=_343502_1&course_id=_56292_1&content_id=_3886032_1&step=null”> Assess the priority of the five control techniques. Give an example for each of the five control techniques for an operation you are familiar with. If you are not familiar with an operation that contains hazards, give an example for each of the five techniques using an operation involving hand grinding of large metal parts.

Which search engine algorithm updates enables Googles search engine to evaluate an entire sentence rather than just a key?

Question 1 Which of the following is NOT a practice that degrades the results and usefulness of search engines? Social search Link farms Content farms Click fraud Question 2 Which of the following is NOT true about search engine advertising? Spending on search engine advertising constitutes over 40% of all online advertising spending. The top three search engine providers’ supply over 95% of all online searches. The click-through rate for search engine marketing has been fairly steady over the years. Search engine advertising is the fastest growing type of online advertising. Question 3 Which of the following search engine algorithm updates enables Google's search engine to evaluate an entire sentence rather than just a key? Panda Penguin Hummingbird Graph Search Question 4 All of the following are online communications that are used to support the evaluation of alternatives stage of the consumer decision process EXCEPT: search engines. online catalogs. social networks. targeted banner ads. Question 5 “Shoppers” constitute approximately __________ % of the online Internet audience. 60 70 80 90

What is the first step in developing an e-commerce security plan?

Question 1 What is the first step in developing an e-commerce security plan? Create a security organization. Develop a security policy. Perform a risk assessment. Perform a security audit. Question 2 Software that is used to obtain private user information such as a user's keystrokes or copies of e-mail is referred to as: spyware. a backdoor. pupware. adware. Question 3 Which of the following dimensions of e-commerce security is NOT provided for by encryption? Confidentiality Availability Message integrity Nonrepudiation Question 4 What is the most frequent cause of stolen credit cards and card information today? Lost cards The hacking and looting of corporate servers storing credit card information Sniffing programs Phishing attacks Question 5 All of the following are used for authentication EXCEPT: digital signatures. certificates of authority. biometric devices. packet filters.

Which conditions exist when data are isolated in separated information systems?

Question 1 Every computer on the Internet has a(n) __________ address. Question 1 options: favorite server ISP IP Question 2 Which of the following statements is true for programming languages? Question 2 options: Compilers translate high-level language programs into machine language programs. None of the above. Interpreter programs use assembly language as input. Interpreted programs run faster than compiled programs. Question 3 When a network does not have a server, all the computers essentially are equal, and programs and data are distributed among them. This is called a __________ network. Question 3 options: local area simple peer-to-peer PC-to-PC Question 4 A __________ is a person or an organization that seeks to obtain or alter data or other IS assets illegally without the owner's permission and often without the owner's knowledge. Question 4 options: target key escrow vulnerability threat Question 5 The term “open source” means that the source code of the program is __________. Question 5 options: less stable and platform dependent available to the public available exclusively through licensing available only to carefully vetted contractors Question 6 Which of the following are examples of information systems? Question 6 options: All of the above ATM College registration system Accounts payable Question 7 Cloud resources are __________ because many different organizations use the same physical hardware. Question 7 options: pooled programmatic portable elastic Question 8 An MIS does not help managers to gain: Question 8 options: market niche. competitiveness. none of the above. operational efficiency. Question 9 Which of the following is the presentation format of an application? Question 9 options: User interface Botnet Cookie Process blueprints Question 10 Scientific tools used to manipulate information to help choose the best of several possibilities is: Question 10 options: decision support systems. transaction processing systems. neural networking. AI. Question 11 Which of the following is the largest unit of measurement? Question 11 options: Terabyte Megabyte Kilobyte Gigabyte Question 12 Which of the following conditions exist when data are isolated in separated information systems? Question 12 options: Data segregation Information silo Information overload Encapsulation Question 13 What is source code? Question 13 options: An open source framework File(s) containing statements that provide program instructions A program that produces machine code The object code Question 14 A login password should not include __________. Question 14 options: lowercase letters uppercase letters personal information, such as birthdays more than 8 characters Question 15 Mark is transferring funds online through the website of a reputed bank. Which of the following will be displayed in the address bar of his browser that will let him know that the bank is using the SSL protocol? Question 15 options: ftp https .com www Question 16 The suite of communications protocols used in the Internet is called: Question 16 options: none of the above. URL. TCP/IP. HTML. Question 17 __________ is the activity of altering existing and designing new business processes to take advantage of new information systems. Question 17 options: Business process outsourcing Business process modeling Business process reengineering Enterprise resource planning Question 18 The physical components of a computer are referred to as __________. Question 18 options: software hardware configurations specifications Question 19 A(n) __________ is a computer program that senses when another computer is attempting to scan the disk or otherwise access a computer. Question 19 options: keylogger access control system intrusion detection system botnet Question 20 A relational DBMS allows you to create database structures containing __________. Question 20 options: all of the above table relationships fields tables

What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?

Question 1 A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on Select one: a. Determining evolutionary relatedness b. Bioremediation c. Recombinant DNA d. Nomenclature e. Determining if that species is the cause of a new disease Question 2 Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the specimen? Select one: a. Objective lens b. Ocular lens c. Condenser d. Body e. Iris diaphragm Question 3 Characteristics of shared by all cells include: Select one: a. a membrane serving as a cell boundary b. the possession of genetic information c. the presence of cellular fluid d. All of these Question 4 Glycolysis Select one: a. Uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP and requires oxygen b. Uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP and requires oxygen c. Uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP, without oxygen d. Uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP, without oxygen e. None of the choices are correct Question 5 Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? Select one: a. Live lab animals b. Embryonated bird eggs c. Primary cell cultures d. Continuous cell cultures e. All of the choices will support viral cultivation Question 6 The smallest and most significant taxon is Select one: a. Genus b. Species c. Kingdom d. Family e. Phylum Question 7 Which of the following is not true of the cytoskeleton? Select one: a. Structural framework for the cell b. Anchor points for organelles c. Made up of microfilaments d. Made up of microtubules e. Made up of cilia Question 8 Which of the following is not a function of a prokaryote cell membrane? Select one: a. Transport b. Secretion c. Cellular respiration d. Macromolecule synthesis e. Antigens and receptors Question 9 Ionic compounds are Select one: a. Hydrophobic b. Hydrophilic c. Are acidic in solution d. Are basic in solution e. Always form salts in solution Question 10 Which of the following is mismatched? Select one: a. Methanogens – convert CO2 and H2 gases into methane b. Extreme halophiles – adapted to salty habitats c. Psychrophiles – adapted to very low temperatures d. Hyperthermophiles – adapted to high temperatures e. Thermo plasmas – adapted to frozen environments Question 11 The study of the immune response to infection caused by microorganisms is Select one: a. Hypersensitivity b. Epidemiology c. Immunology d. Morbidity e. Geomicrobiology Question 12 The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram positive bacterial cell wall structure is Select one: a. More peptidoglycan b. Predominance of unique, waxy, lipids c. Easily decolorized d. Presence of lipopolysaccharide e. All of the choices are correct Question 13 A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose? Select one: a. Amino acids b. Hydrogen and oxygen atoms c. Nitrogen and phosphorus d. Fatty acids e. Carbon atoms Question 14 Oncogenic viruses include all the following except Select one: a. Hepatitis B virus b. Measles virus c. Papillomavirus d. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses e. Epstein-Barr virus Question 15 Fungal asexual spores Select one: a. Are only produced under harmful environmental conditions b. Are only asexually produced c. Cannot be seen in a light microscope d. Are the products of meiotic division by a single parent cell e. Are used to identify fungi Question 16 An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32° C is called a/an Select one: a. Extremophile b. Thermophile c. Psychrophile d. Facultative psychrophile e. Thermoduric Question 17 Reverse transcriptase synthesizes Select one: a. The positive RNA strand from a negative RNA strand b. A negative RNA strand from a positive RNA strand c. Viral RNA from DNA d. Viral DNA from RNA e. None of the choices are correct Question 18 In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer? Select one: a. ADP b. Glucose c. Carbon d. Hydrogen e. Carbon dioxide Question 19 Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound? Select one: a. Phosphate-carbohydrates b. Sulfhydryl-proteins c. Amino-proteins d. Hydroxyl-alcohols e. Carboxyl-fatty acids Question 20 A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an Select one: a. Promoter b. Operator c. Operon d. Exon e. Intron Question 21 An important indicator of evolutionary relatedness is to determine Select one: a. Size of the periplasmic space b. Similarities of cell membrane proteins c. Size of the bacterial chromosome d. Nitrogen base sequence of rRNA e. Size of the ribosomes Question 22 Which type of microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background? Select one: a. Bright-field b. Dark-field c. Phase-contrast d. Fluorescence e. Electron Question 23 Which is incorrect about inducible operons? Select one: a. Have genes turned off by a buildup of end product b. Are often for catabolic pathways c. Are normally turned off d. Are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme e. Include the lac operon Question 24 Enzymes are Select one: a. Broken down in reactions that require energy input b. Proteins that function as catalysts c. Used up in chemical reactions d. Not needed for catabolic reactions e. All of the choices are correct Question 25 Contractile vacuoles are Select one: a. Used to expel excess water from cells b. Found in bacterial cells c. Important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments d. Protein carriers in cell membranes e. Used to bring solutes into a cell Question 26 Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen? Select one: a. Objective lens b. Ocular lens c. Condenser d. Body e. Iris diaphragm Question 27 The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put ino a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the Select one: a. Colony b. Inoculum c. Streak d. Loop e. None of the choices are correct Question 28 The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them and correctly replace them are Select one: a. DNA ligases b. DNA polymerases c. DNA helicases d. DNA gyrases e. Primases Question 29 An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify and package proteins for cell secretion is the Select one: a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Golgi apparatus d. Chloroplasts e. Endoplasmic reticulum Question 30 A frame shift is caused by ______ mutations? Select one: a. Missense and insertion b. Missense and nonsense c. Nonsense and deletion d. Deletion and insertion e. Insertion and nonsense Question 31 Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called Select one: a. Viroids b. Prions c. Bacteriophages d. Satellite viruses e. All of the choices infect bacteria Question 32 Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? Select one: a. Species b. Phylum c. Kingdom d. Genus e. Family Question 33 Human pathogens fall into the group Select one: a. Psychrophiles b. Thermophiles c. Halophiles d. Mesophiles e. Acidophiles Question 34 What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony? Select one: a. Axenic b. Mixed c. Pure d. Both axenic and mixed e. Both axenic and pure Question 35 Traditional approaches to taxonomy involved observation of visible morphological characteristics. Today, however, new molecular methods include the examination of: Select one: a. DNA b. rRNA c. proteins d. All of these Question 36 The woven, intertwining mass of hyphae that makes up the body of a mold is a/an Select one: a. Septum b. Rhizoid c. Spore d. Bud e. Mycelium Question 37 An irregular cluster of spherical cells would be called a/an Select one: a. Palisades b. Sarcina c. Staphylococcus d. Streptococcus e. Spirilla Question 38 The production of antibodies is a form of antagonism called Select one: a. Symbiosis b. Satellitism c. Antibiosis d. Mutualism e. Synergism Question 39 What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom? Select one: a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 18 e. 32 Question 40 Enzymes that catalyze moving a phosphate from one substrate to another are called Select one: a. Phosphotransferases b. Oxidoreductases c. Decarboxylases d. Aminotransferases e. Ligases

What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis?

Question 1 Keratin is an important aspect of non-specific defense because Select one: a. It is toxic to pathogens b. It creates a physical barrier against pathogens c. It destroys pathogens d. It physically restricts pathogens to a specific region e. None of the choices are correct Question 2 Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis? Select one: a. Aminoglycosides b. Tetracyclines c. Erythromycin d. Trimethroprim e. Chloramphenicol Question 3 Which is mismatched? Select one: a. Fimbriae – adherence to substrate b. Capsules – antiphagocytic factor c. Coagulase – dissolve fibrin clots d. Leukocidins – damage white blood cells e. Hemolysins – damage red blood cells Question 4 The embryonic yolk sac, the liver and the bone marrow are sites where Select one: a. Immune responses to antigen occur b. Stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes c. Antigen is filtered from the blood d. Antigen is filtered from tissue fluid e. T lymphocytes complete maturation Question 5 Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called Select one: a. Syndromes b. Malaise c. Inflammation d. Asymptomatic e. Secondary infection Question 6 Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells? Select one: a. After birth produced in red bone marrow sites b. Develop from undifferentiated stem cells c. Include mast cells d. Include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes e. Include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei Question 7 The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are Select one: a. Fomites b. Aerosols c. Mechanical vectors d. Droplet nuclei e. Biological vectors Question 8 Which of the following is not a primary target of milk pasteurization? Select one: a. Salmonella b. Campylobacter jejuni c. Lactobacilli d. Listeria monocytogenes e. Brucella Question 9 The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is Select one: a. Disinfection b. Sterilization c. Antisepsis d. Sanitization e. Degermation Question 10 Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause Select one: a. Recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs b. Fever and anemia c. Systemic shock and kidney failure d. Massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs e. All of the choices are correct Question 11 The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an Select one: a. Epitope b. Hapten c. Antigen binding site d. Variable region e. None of the choices are correct Question 12 A person who has anti A and anti B serum antibodies will have blood type Select one: a. A b. B c. AB d. O e. Rh Question 13 Which test is used to diagnose polio? Select one: a. ELISA b. Western blot c. Widal test d. Complement fixation e. VRDL Question 14 The Western blot test is confirmatory for HIV because Select one: a. It is more sensitive than the ELISA b. It has fewer false positives than the ELISA c. It tests for more HIV antibodies than ELISA d. It is easier to interpret than ELISA e. All of the choices are correct Question 15 Precipitation tests involve all the following except Select one: a. They rely on formation of visible clumps for detection b. They include the VDRL test for syphilis c. They are often performed in agar gels d. They can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution e. A cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react Question 16 _____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. Select one: a. B cells, T cells b. T cells, B cells c. Monocytes, Basophils d. Basophils, T cells e. B cells, neutrophils Question 17 Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called Select one: a. Inhibitors b. Blockers c. Competitive inhibitors d. Non-competitive inhibitors e. None of the choices are correct Question 18 The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when Select one: a. Maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus b. Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother c. Maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus d. Fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother e. Fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother Question 19 Destruction of lymphocytes with self-specificity is called Select one: a. Immune tolerance b. Proliferation c. Clonal selection d. Differentiation e. Hypersensitivity Question 20 What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis? Select one: a. Penicillin G b. Vancomycin c. Tetracycline d. Erythromycin e. Isoniazid

Does the presence or absence of a particular protein correlate with the presence or absence of a particular allele?

• Question 1 3 out of 3 points In the first part of this lab, we study data from a (hypothetical) species called Glyptodan neomexicanus. Each individual has either a red shell or a yellow shell. A count of individuals in a particular area indicates that there are 122 red individuals and 38 yellow individuals. If we assume that shell color is inherited in a Mendelian fashion, which shell color appears to be dominant? • Question 2 0 out of 3 points All we can observe directly is the phenotype of an individual, without biochemical or genomic analysis. Therefore, we cannot ascertain the genotype of individuals by inspection of their shells. However, if shell color is inherited in a Mendelian fashion and if we study family units, we can infer the genotype from the phenotypes of the parents and the offspring. In this analysis we are assuming that red is dominant and yellow is recessive. The A allele goes with the red trait, the a allele goes with the yellow trait. If both parents are yellow, and all offspring are yellow, then • Question 3 3 out of 3 points All we can observe directly is the phenotype of an individual, without biochemical or genomic analysis. Therefore, we cannot ascertain the genotype of individuals by inspection of their shells. However, if shell color is inherited in a Mendelian fashion and if we study family units, we can infer the genotype from the phenotypes of the parents and the offspring. In this analysis we are assuming that red is dominant and yellow is recessive. The A allele goes with the red trait, the a allele goes with the yellow trait. If one parent is red and the other is yellow and half the offspring are red, while half the offspring are yellow, then • Question 4 3 out of 3 points Refer to the picture of the thin-layer chromatography results to answer this question. Based on the thin-layer chromatography of shell extract, how many pigments are present in the samples derived from individuals that are heterozygous for shell color? • Question 5 3 out of 3 points Refer to the picture of the thin-layer chromatography results to answer this question Can you distinguish between the chromatograms of an Aa individual and an AA individual? • Question 6 3 out of 3 points Refer to the picture of the thin-layer chromatography results to answer this question What pigments are present in the samples derived from individuals that are homozygous dominant (AA) for shell color? • Question 7 3 out of 3 points What is the approximate molecular weight of the protein that is missing from the homozygous recessive extract? • Question 8 3 out of 3 points What can you conclude if the protein with an apparent mass of 45 kDa is not detected in individuals who lack the dominant allele? • Question 9 3 out of 3 points Does the presence or absence of a particular protein correlate with the presence or absence of a particular allele? • Question 10 3 out of 3 points The protein profiles for the Aa and AA individuals are

During which phase of the cell cycle is the nucleus actually dividing?

• Question 1 3 out of 3 points During which phase of the cell cycle is the nucleus actually dividing? • Question 2 3 out of 3 points In multi-nucleate cells, which phase of the cell cycle is not utilized? • Question 3 3 out of 3 points In cells that virtually never divide, in which phase are they apparently locked? • Question 4 3 out of 3 points Which type of cell uses cell plate formation to divide the cytoplasm? • Question 5 3 out of 3 points During which stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelope begin to reappear? • Question 6 3 out of 3 points How many cells are produced from a single cell after five mitotic divisions? • Question 7 3 out of 3 points Meiosis produces ______ haploid nuclei. • Question 8 3 out of 3 points Homologous chromosomes pair during • Question 9 3 out of 3 points During meiosis, the centromeres divide as the cell moves into • Question 10 3 out of 3 points Crossing over occurs during _________ _

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