1) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has developed all of th

1) From its scientific heritage, organizational behavior has
developed all of the following EXCEPT:
A. use of scientific methods.
B. contingency thinking.
C. an interdisciplinary body of knowledge.
D. an emphasis on finding the “one best way” to complete a
task.

2) __________ is a multidisciplinary field devoted to understanding
individual and group behavior, interpersonal processes, and
organizational dynamics.
A. performance management.
B. workgroup analysis.
C. motivation.
D. organizational behavior.

3) Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary body of
knowledge with strong ties to all of the following disciplines
EXCEPT:
A. sociology.
B. anthropology.
C. physics.
D. psychology.
4) Organizations are encouraged to develop a dominant and
coherent set of __________. Although every member may not agree
with them, all members will know they are important.
A. common perceptions
B. shared values
C. implicit needs
D. observable attitudes

5) Three important levels of cultural analysis in organizations are
__________.
A. observable culture, shared values, and common assumptions.
B. explicit culture, implicit culture, and common assumptions.
C. shared objectives, shared values, and shared mission.
D. implicit culture, shared values, and common experiences.

6) Managers can modify the __________ of culture, such as the
language, stories, rites, rituals, and sagas.
A. verbal aspects
B. oral aspects
C. visible aspects
D. vocal aspects

7) Scientific methods models are simplified views of reality that
try to identify major factors and forces underlying real-world
phenomenon.
A. False
B. True

8) Common forms of unintentional ethics lapses that individuals
should guard against include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. favoring others who can benefit someone.
B. promoting people who excel in their respective positions.
C. claiming too much personal credit for one’s performance
contributions.
D. prejudice that derives from unconscious stereotypes and
attitudes.

9) When it comes to ethics and morality, scholar Archie B. Carroll
draws a distinction between __________.
A. immoral managers, amoral managers and ethical managers
B. amoral managers, ethical managers and moral managers
C. immoral managers, ethical managers and unethical managers
D. immoral managers, amoral managers and moral managers
10) The difficulties with cross-cultural communication are
perhaps most obvious with respect to __________.
A. geographic differences
B. lifestyle differences
C. language differences
D. religious differences

11) There are six sources of noise that are common to most
interpersonal exchanges. These six sources are __________.
A. semantic problems, proximity problems, mixed messages, cultural
differences, absence of planning, and status effects.
B. tangible distractions, people problems, inconsistent messages,
cultural differences, absence of prior planning, and absence of
feedback.
C. cultural differences, physical distractions, semantic problems,
mixed messages, absence of feedback, and status effects.
D. mixed messages, cultural differences, absence of feedback,
proximity problems, absence of commitment to effective
communication, and status effects.

12) Which of the following statements about the role of language in
cross-cultural communication is NOT correct?
A. Members of low-context cultures are very explicit in using the
spoken and written word.
B. In high-context cultures, must of the message communicated must
be inferred or interpreted from the context, which includes body
language, the physical setting and past relationships.
C. In low-context cultures, the message is rarely conveyed by the
words someone uses, with greater emphasis on the “context” in which
the words are spoken.
D. Australia, Canada and the United States have low-context
cultures.
13) Members of __________ must have good long-term working
relationships with one another, solid operating systems, and the
external support needed to achieve effectiveness over a sustained
period of time.
A. teams that plan things.
B. teams that review things.
C. teams that reengineer things.
D. teams that make or do things.

14) __________ may exist at all levels of responsibility, from the
individual work unit composed of a team leader and team members to
the top management team composed of a CEO and other senior
executives.
A. Teams that review things.
B. Teams that make or do things.
C. Teams that run things.
D. Teams that evaluate things.

15) __________ typically work with a target completion date and
disband once their purpose has been fulfilled.
A. Teams that recommend things.
B. Teams that review things.
C. Teams that run things.
D. Teams that study things.

16) Whenever he is involved in a disagreement, Harry tries to
partially satisfy both his concerns and the other party’s concerns
through bargaining and appropriate trade-offs. Harry uses which
conflict management style?
A. avoidance
B. collaboration
C. accommodation
D. compromise

17) Sheila is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others
during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her
authority to gain compliance. Sheila uses which conflict management
style?
A. competition
B. compromise
C. collaboration
D. accommodation

18) Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees
during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their
differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among
them. Ken is using which conflict management style?
A. avoidance
B. compromise
C. competition
D. accommodation

19) In the context of motivation, level refers to __________.
A. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.
B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
D. the consequences of an individual’s behavior.

20) Content theories attempt to explain work behaviors based on
_______________.
A. perceptions on-the-job.
B. the impact of individual ethics on business decisions.
C. the relationship between values and attitudes.
D. pathways to need satisfaction and the influence of blocked
needs.

21) In the context of motivation, persistence refers to
__________.
A. an individual’s choice when presented with a number of possible
alternatives.
B. the amount of effort a person puts forth.
C. the length of time a person sticks with a given action.
D. the different needs that an individual is trying to satisfy.

22) Even though homogeneous teams may struggle in the short run to
resolve issues, they are also likely to develop enhanced
performance potential once things are worked out.
A. True
B. False

23) In general, chances for long-term group success are better when
the group input foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources;
technology; membership diversity; and group size – are
stronger.
A. True
B. False

24) Research indicates that diversity among team members rarely
creates performance difficulties early in the team’s life or stage
of development.
A. True
B. False
25) Eustress has a negative impact on both attitudes and
performance.
A. True
B. False

26) Wellness involves maintaining physical and mental health to
better deal with stress when it occurs.
A. True
B. False

27) Stress is a state of tension experienced by individuals facing
extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities.
A. True
B. False

28) Milgram designed experiments to determine the extent to which
people __________.
A. are willing to use coercive power to gain influence.
B. obey the commands of an authority figure.
C. learn from personal failures.
D. are willing to learn new things as a means of gaining expert
power.

29) Which one of the following statements does NOT provide an
accurate description of Stanley Milgram’s experiments?
A. the experimental results revealed that 35 percent of the
subjects subjected the “learner” to the maximum level of shock and
the remaining 65 percent refused to obey the experimenter at
various intermediate points.
B. experimental subjects were instructed to give what they believed
were successively higher levels of electric shocks to people who
missed the word pairs
C. Milgram designed a series of experiments to determine the extent
to which people obey the commands of an authority figure, even if
they believe they are endangering the life of another person.
D. the basic conclusion of Milgram’s studies is there is a tendency
for individuals to comply with and be obedient to authority.

30) Which of the following statements about power and
organizational politics is NOT correct?
A. power and politics always exist in organizations.
B. managers derive their power from personal and organizational
sources.
C. power and politics represent the seamy side of management, since
organizations are not democracies composed of individuals with
equal influence.
D. few instances exist where individual and organizational
interests are compatible.

31) High-performance teams have strong core values that help guide
their attitudes and behaviors in directions consistent with the
team’s purpose.
A. True
B. False

32) High-performance teams have special characteristics that allow
them to excel at teamwork and achieve special performance
advantages.
A. True
B. False

33) A high-performing team can be created by finding ways to create
early successes, establishing clear rules for team behavior,
setting the tone in the first team meeting, and, as a leader,
modeling expected behaviors.
A. True
B. False

34) _________________ is often used in combination with vertical
leadership.
A. shared leadership
B. organizational goal setting
C. power negotiation
D. individual leadership

35) All of the following statements about full-range leadership
theory are true EXCEPT:
A. C. FRLT is fast becoming the most commonly used leadership
theory used by organizations.
B. B. the approach is built around revisions to Bass’ Multifactor
Leadership Questionnaire.
C. A. the theory currently consists of nine factors including five
transformational, three transactional one non-transactional
factor.
D. D. some scholars consider the FRLT as an approach that could
serve as a general leadership model that would trim or eliminate
the numerous models now emphasized today.

36) Four of the CLT leadership dimensions are:
A. charismatic/value based, systematic, future orientation,
performance driven.
B. autonomous, participative, driven, focus-oriented.
C. self-protective, autonomous, humane-oriented, team-oriented.
D. implicit, explicit, specific, detailed.
37) The __________ and the __________ are important ways in
which firms learn to co-evolve by altering their environments.
A. management of networks… influence of governments
B. use of corporate philanthropy… influence of governments
C. management of networks…development of alliances
D. influence of governments…development of alliances

38) Large systems tend to be susceptible to the __________, wherein
managers fail to monitor their environments, recognize the
important trends, or sense the need for change, and consequently
their organizations slowly lose their competitive edge.
A. impatience trap
B. boiled frog phenomenon
C. proactive phenomenon
D. immobility trap

39) The obvious organizational design response to uncertainty and
volatility is to opt for a more __________ form.
A. mechanistic
B. bureaucratic
C. centralized
D. organic

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